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Prodigal Daughter
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| Joined: | Wed Nov 29th, 2006 |
| Location: | Lehigh Valley, Pennsylvania USA |
| Posts: | 203 |
| First Name: | Deborah/PD | | Gender: | Female | | Faith History: | Baptized Catholic, received First Communion, left during Confirmation year. ... |
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Posted: Thu Dec 7th, 2006 09:54 am |
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I recently read that the end of the Lord's Prayer is not in the original Greek of the New Testament. As an evangelical I always thought that Catholics "left that part out." {I didn't remember that it is in the Mass (considering I left the Catholic Church when I was 10)}.
My question is this: Where did the ending part come from? Why was it added to the Bible? I'm sure there is a rich history behind it. Does anyone know?
"For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever and ever"
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"Man should tremble, the world should vibrate, all Heaven should be deeply moved when the Son of God appears on the altar in the hands of the priest."
St. Francis of Assisi
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CajunRick
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Posted: Thu Dec 7th, 2006 01:28 pm |
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Prodigal Daughter wrote: I recently read that the end of the Lord's Prayer is not in the original Greek of the New Testament. As an evangelical I always thought that Catholics "left that part out." {I didn't remember that it is in the Mass (considering I left the Catholic Church when I was 10)}.
My question is this: Where did the ending part come from? Why was it added to the Bible? I'm sure there is a rich history behind it. Does anyone know?
"For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever and ever"
Earlier manuscripts do not include that phrase. It is added in later manuscripts. It's what's called a "gloss". If you check various versions at the BibleGateway (all Protestant translations), most besides the KJV either leave it out, include it in a footnote, or include it in brackets or otherwise designate it as not part of the original text. Even the New King James includes a footnote that it is not part of the earliest manuscript, which it calls the NU Text.
Catholics added it as a concluding doxology in the 70's, but separated it from the traditional prayer since it is not part of the original. The phrase does not appear in the Douay-Rheims version, which is a direct translation of the Latin Vulgate of St. Jerome.
(A gloss is a marginal or interlinear note. In the case of the bible, glosses were sometimes erroneously picked up by later copyists as part of the original text. It's one of the problems of using a 400-year old translation that does not take advantage of the latest scholarship.)
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David W. Emery
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| Joined: | Fri Sep 29th, 2006 |
| Location: | Brownsville, Texas USA |
| Posts: | 2522 |
| First Name: | David | | Gender: | Male | | Faith History: | Catholic |
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Posted: Thu Dec 7th, 2006 05:05 pm |
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There’s more to the story. The doxology is very ancient, and it actually comes from Catholic liturgy and appears in some early patristic texts. It was “glossed” into some manuscripts in the later patristic period. Early Protestants picked it up because Catholics weren’t using it at the time. It was their way of being different.
The new Mass has simply re-incorporated this ancient custom. So there’s nothing wrong with using it, even with the Our Father. But there is also nothing that says we have to use it outside its current place in the Mass.
David
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